Hunger and Thirst Day #1

Matthew 5:6 [YLT}

"Happy those hungering and thirsting for the righteousness -- because they shall be filled"

Greek:
[WH] - μακαριοι οι πεινωντες και διψωντες την δικαιοσυνην οτι αυτοι χορτασθησονται
[TR] - μακαριοι οι πεινωντες και διψωντες την δικαιοσυνην οτι αυτοι χορτασθησονται
[Byz] - μακαριοι οι πεινωντες και διψωντες την δικαιοσυνην οτι αυτοι χορτασθησονται

Forty (40) English translations do not translate the Greek definite article "την" [the] that comes before the Greek word translated "righteousness" or "justice."

Why is this so?

I don't know the ins and outs of Greek grammar but I do have some understanding of English grammar and I have the wild notion that there may be similarities. So, why is the definite article NOT translated here? In English, the definite article serves a purpose. When we are talking about one thing in particular, we use the definite article 'the.' I have read that in Greek, "the definite article is generally used to indicate a specific thing or set of things (e.g. "the book" as opposed to "a book," etc). There is also an important reflexive use of the definite article, in which it is used in a reflexive sense to indicate someone or something that belongs to, has some relation to, or is a physical part of the subject (e.g. when the Greek literally says "the boy reads the book," it may actually mean "the boy reads his book"). The context will determine when the definite article is being used in this reflexive sense."

So I gotta ask any Greek scholars if the context of Matthew 5:6 indicates whether this is a reflexive use [one's own righteousness/justice/justification] or the identification of a specific thing - the only righteousness/justice that is real - God's?